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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

09.06.2025 00:35

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Why have feminists not demanded that females be required to register with the selective service? Are female lives more precious than male lives?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

How do you say "I don't speak Italian yet, but I hope to speak it well one day. It would be a pleasure to learn Italian with you. Would you like to teach me Italian?" in Italian?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.